Have you all experienced individuals using their maternal grandmothers
name for some records?
I have two instances when in one case the man was named with a surname
that could only be explained if he was using his maternal grandmothers
last name. (note this one example was the only time I saw this for a
man). I also have a marriage record for a woman that was using her
maternal grandmothers last name.
Have you all seen this before? It is getting to be pretty common for me
to find records with individuals using their mothers name rather than
their fathers name but this use of the maternal grandmothers last name
has me questioning the records I’m looking at.
thanks,
joseph
I read somewhere, {and I can't remember where, but I tried looking
for my source for this information}, that if the wife's family was of
a higher status or surname was 'better' {in using measurements during
that time period}, then the males in the family took the wife's
surname which would then pass to their children. And the females
took the husband's surname which would get passed to their children
as the secondary surname.
In terms of mispellings or spelling variations. Again, I read
somewhere, the person recording the name tended to be more educated
then the general people. Therefore, it would have been ‘beneath’ him
to ask how to spell a name to someone who was less educated them he.
The ability to read and write was not wide spread, but more than
likely even those people who did know how to write, were probably
still not asked the correct way to spell their name.
just me two cents…
Angie
Jose and Angie,
I seem to recall reading something about this subject. It might have
been in "Retoños de España en la Nueva Galicia" by Mariano González-
Leal. Possibly the Franco de Paredes chapter. I would have to concur
with Angie's statements, unless my memory is failing me. The case
study was where the husband added his wife's surname to his own. He
might have been Franco and the wife was Paredes so the husband added
Paredes to his own surname. The reason for the addition is just what
Angie said: the wife's surname carried more prestige than the
husband's. Steven may be able to shed some light on this. I believe
he is contributing to the newest edition of Retoños.
One thing we should keep in mind when you say "traditionally the wife
keeps her maiden name" is that traditions change over time and it all
depends on what century you are debating. There is a big difference
in naming patterns in say 1580 and 1920.
Maria
— In ranchos@yahoogroups.com, "Jose Macias" <usa20@e…> wrote:
> Angie; Though I can see the logic of what you say you may have
read, I have never seen this to be the case in taking the surname of
the wife.
> As you know, the child of Hector Garcia and Rosa Mendez would be
for example Carlita Garcia Mendez. I have never seen a man change
his name to Hector Mendez. It is not true in Mexico, Central America
or South America, is it true maybe in Spain or Portugal ? A family
name is very important and I have never seen a case where a man would
change his surname to that of his wife’s father. I wonder where you
read this ? Traditionally the woman keeps her maiden name in that way
even after marriage.
> I know about the variations in the spelling of names. I have seen
some very strange attempts to spell Indian names by phonetics.
> Anyway, I found your entry very enlightening and will remember to
keep it in mind as I look over the records from now on. If you will
tell me where you have seen this practice, it would help me very much.
>
> Jose L. Macias
> usa20@e…
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: aajay1073
> To: ranchos@yahoogroups.com
> Sent: Monday, June 30, 2003 3:12 PM
> Subject: [ranchos] Re: Naming Patterns
>
>
> I read somewhere, {and I can’t remember where, but I tried
looking
> for my source for this information}, that if the wife’s family
was of
> a higher status or surname was ‘better’ {in using measurements
during
> that time period}, then the males in the family took the wife’s
> surname which would then pass to their children. And the females
> took the husband’s surname which would get passed to their
children
> as the secondary surname.
>
> In terms of mispellings or spelling variations. Again, I read
> somewhere, the person recording the name tended to be more
educated
> then the general people. Therefore, it would have been ‘beneath’
him
> to ask how to spell a name to someone who was less educated them
he.
> The ability to read and write was not wide spread, but more than
> likely even those people who did know how to write, were probably
> still not asked the correct way to spell their name.
>
> just me two cents…
>
> Angie
>
>
>
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Just to clarify the example that I read...using your example... The
husband doesn't neccessarily have to take on the surname of his
wife's father. But in your example, you have a Carlos Garcia Mendez
and a Carlita Garcia Mendez, two siblings. Carlos gets married and
has children and on his wedding records and his children's baptismal
records he is referred to as Carlos Mendez, basically dropping the
Garcia. His children then become Jose Mendez Lopez, where Lopez is
his wife's surname. Carlita on the other hand, when she gets married
and has children she is referred to as Carlita Garcia. Her children
are then Jose Lopez Garcia, where Lopez is her husband's surname. So
these two siblings end up having different surnames.
Thanks,
Angie.
P.S. Still looking for my source…
— In ranchos@yahoogroups.com, "Jose Macias" <usa20@e…> wrote:
> Angie; Though I can see the logic of what you say you may have
read, I have never seen this to be the case in taking the surname of
the wife.
> As you know, the child of Hector Garcia and Rosa Mendez would be
for example Carlita Garcia Mendez. I have never seen a man change
his name to Hector Mendez. It is not true in Mexico, Central America
or South America, is it true maybe in Spain or Portugal ? A family
name is very important and I have never seen a case where a man would
change his surname to that of his wife’s father. I wonder where you
read this ? Traditionally the woman keeps her maiden name in that way
even after marriage.
> I know about the variations in the spelling of names. I have seen
some very strange attempts to spell Indian names by phonetics.
> Anyway, I found your entry very enlightening and will remember to
keep it in mind as I look over the records from now on. If you will
tell me where you have seen this practice, it would help me very much.
>
> Jose L. Macias
> usa20@e…
As I re-read what I wrote here... I realize what I said may not have
been clear. Therefore just to clarify....{once again}
What I meant by "the males in the family took the wife’s surname",
was that the male children took their mother’s surname. And, "the
females took the husband’s surname", was that the female children
took their father’s surname.
Hope this makes more sense…
Angie.
P.S. Perhaps I need to get change for my two cents…
— In ranchos@yahoogroups.com, "aajay1073" <aajay1073@y…> wrote:
> I read somewhere, {and I can’t remember where, but I tried looking
> for my source for this information}, that if the wife’s family was
of
> a higher status or surname was ‘better’ {in using measurements
during
> that time period}, then the males in the family took the wife’s
> surname which would then pass to their children. And the females
> took the husband’s surname which would get passed to their children
> as the secondary surname.
>
> In terms of mispellings or spelling variations. Again, I read
> somewhere, the person recording the name tended to be more educated
> then the general people. Therefore, it would have been ‘beneath’
him
> to ask how to spell a name to someone who was less educated them
he.
> The ability to read and write was not wide spread, but more than
> likely even those people who did know how to write, were probably
> still not asked the correct way to spell their name.
>
> just me two cents…
>
> Angie